APPSC Group 1 Exam Pattern 2026: Screening Test, Mains and Interview
The APPSC Group 1 exam pattern for 2026 has three stages: an objective Screening Test, a descriptive Mains and an Interview. Only the Mains and Interview decide final merit, so the Screening Test works as a filter and the Mains decides your rank. The scheme comes from Annexure II of Notification No. 07/2026.
This page gives the marks, questions and timing for every stage, explains negative marking and qualifying rules, and shows how the final merit of 825 marks is calculated. It also turns the numbers into practical time and strategy advice.
Table of Contents
Exam pattern at a glance
Stage | Format | Marks | Duration | Counted in final merit |
|---|---|---|---|---|
Screening Test | Objective, OMR based, 2 papers | 120 + 120 | 120 minutes per paper | No, shortlisting only |
Mains: language papers | Descriptive, Telugu and English | 150 each | 180 minutes each | No, qualifying only |
Mains: Papers I to V | Descriptive | 150 each, 750 in all | 180 minutes each | Yes |
Interview | Personality test | 75 | Not specified | Yes |
Screening Test pattern
The Screening Test is held offline on an OMR sheet. It has two papers, and you must appear in both, because absence in either paper makes a candidate liable for disqualification.
Test | Questions | Marks | Time |
|---|---|---|---|
Paper I: General Studies (four parts of 30 marks each) | 120 | 120 | 120 minutes |
Paper II: General Aptitude | 120 | 120 | 120 minutes |
Paper II splits into Part A (General Mental and Psychological Abilities, 60 marks), Part B(i) (Science and Technology, 30 marks) and Part B(ii) (Current events, 30 marks). With 120 marks for 120 questions, each question works out to one mark.
The Commission admits to the Mains a number of candidates equal to 50 times the vacancies, regardless of community, but it can also apply relaxed standards for SC, ST, BC and PBD candidates if too few qualify. The question paper is set in English and translated into Telugu. If the two versions differ, the English version is final.
Mains pattern
The Mains is descriptive and is held at four centres: Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, Tirupati and Ananthapuramu. Each candidate chooses one centre.
Test | Marks | Time | Nature |
|---|---|---|---|
Telugu (SSC standard) | 150 | 180 minutes | Qualifying |
English (SSC standard) | 150 | 180 minutes | Qualifying |
Paper I: General Essay | 150 | 180 minutes | Merit |
Paper II: History, Culture and Geography of India and Andhra Pradesh | 150 | 180 minutes | Merit |
Paper III: Polity, Constitution, Governance, Law and Ethics | 150 | 180 minutes | Merit |
Paper IV: Economy and Development of India and Andhra Pradesh | 150 | 180 minutes | Merit |
Paper V: Science and Technology | 150 | 180 minutes | Merit |
Papers I to V can be written in English, Telugu or Urdu, chosen when you submit your post and zone preferences. You must use the same medium for all five papers, and mixing languages within a paper makes the candidature invalid. Candidates may need to give their choice online before the Mains, so watch the official website.
The minimum marks in each of the Telugu and English papers are 40 percent for OC, sportspersons and EWS, 35 percent for BC and 30 percent for SC, ST and PBD candidates. The Mains answer scripts may be evaluated digitally or in the conventional mode, depending on administrative convenience.
Marking scheme and negative marking
Each wrong answer in the Screening Test is penalised by one third of the marks for that question. For a one-mark question, that is about 0.33 marks. The notification mentions the penalty for wrong answers only, so unattempted questions are not shown to carry a penalty. If a question is deleted, the marks of that part are scaled up to the paper maximum and rounded to two decimals.
Candidates can raise objections to the initial answer key within three days of publication, at Rs. 100 per objection. The fee is refunded if the objection is upheld. The Commission finalises the key after consulting subject experts.
What the pattern means for you
Time per question: 120 questions in 120 minutes leaves about one minute each. Aptitude and data interpretation questions need faster routines.
Cost of a guess: a wrong answer takes away one third of a mark, so guess only when you can remove at least two options.
Where effort goes: the Mains carries 750 of the 825 merit marks, so give descriptive writing practice from the start, not after the Screening Test.
Language papers: Telugu and English do not add to merit but can disqualify you. Practise them regularly, particularly if you have not written formal letters or reports recently.
Medium choice: pick the language in which you can write fastest and most accurately for 180 minutes, and practise all five papers in it.
Interview
After the Mains, candidates are called for the 75-mark interview in the ratio of 1:2 against the vacancies. The notification states that the final selection is based on merit in the Mains and the Interview. Appointment is also subject to medical fitness and, for the police posts, the physical standards listed in the notification.
Final merit calculation
Merit is the total of the five Mains merit papers (5 x 150 = 750) and the interview (75), which makes 825 marks. The two language papers and the Screening Test are not added.
Component | Maximum marks | Example score |
|---|---|---|
Papers I to V (illustrative) | 750 | 391 (85, 78, 80, 72 and 76) |
Interview (illustrative) | 75 | 45 |
Total | 825 | 436 |
The example scores are made up to show the arithmetic and are not a benchmark. If two candidates tie, the older candidate is ranked higher, and if the age is the same, the earlier educational qualification date is considered.
For a Screening Test sum, if you answer 90 questions correctly, 20 wrongly and leave 10 blank, your score is 90 minus 20/3, which is about 83.33 out of 120.
Time management and exam-day strategy
Scan first: in each Screening paper, spend the first 5 minutes marking questions you can solve quickly.
Keep a ceiling: do not spend more than two minutes on any single question in the first round.
Bubble carefully: an error in the booklet series or tampering on the OMR sheet can invalidate the sheet, and the Commission does not reconsider such cases.
Plan Mains answers: in 180 minutes, divide your time evenly across questions and keep a few minutes for review.
Frequently Asked Questions
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