CBSE Superintendent Exam Pattern 2026: Tier I, Tier II and Skill Test
The CBSE Superintendent exam pattern has three stages: a Tier I objective test, a Tier II paper that combines objective and descriptive questions, and a qualifying typing test. The Central Board of Secondary Education conducts all three under its Direct Recruitment Quota (DRQ) 2026 drive for the Group B Superintendent post (Post Code 06/25), notified on 2 December 2025.
The DRQ 2026 notice reshaped Tier I. It now has 100 questions for 300 marks in 2 hours, against 150 questions for 450 marks in 3 hours in the 2024-25 cycle. Tier II did not change. This page explains each stage, the marking scheme, what the numbers mean for your time and guessing, and how the final shortlist is drawn.
Table of Contents
CBSE Superintendent Exam Pattern at a Glance
Tier I Exam Pattern
Tier II Exam Pattern
Marking Scheme and Negative Marking
What the Pattern Means for You
Skill Test Pattern
Shortlisting, Qualifying Marks and Final Merit
Old Pattern vs New Pattern
Exam-Day Rules and OMR Instructions
Time Management and Exam-Day Strategy
CBSE Superintendent Exam Pattern at a Glance
Stage | Format | Marks | Duration | Role in selection |
|---|---|---|---|---|
Tier I | Objective MCQ, OMR-based, 100 questions | 300 | 2 hours | Shortlists for Tier II (1:10) |
Tier II | 50 objective (OMR) plus 30 descriptive (written) questions | 300 | 3 hours | Shortlists for skill test (1:5); main ranking stage |
Skill Test | Typing on computer | Qualifying | As notified | Must pass; no marks added |
Document verification | Original certificates | Not applicable | Not applicable | Required before appointment |
There is no interview for the Superintendent post. Papers are bilingual (Hindi and English) except the Hindi and English language parts.
Tier I Exam Pattern
Tier I is an objective, OMR-based test set at senior secondary level. CBSE holds a separate Tier I sitting for Superintendent because the level and syllabus differ from the Group C posts.
Part | Subject | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|---|
I | Current Affairs, General Awareness | 20 | 60 |
II | General Mental Ability, General Intelligence, Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability | 20 | 60 |
III | Arithmetical and Numerical Ability, Data Interpretation | 20 | 60 |
IV | General Hindi Comprehension and Communication Skill | 10 | 30 |
V | General English Comprehension and Communication Skill | 10 | 30 |
VI | Basic Knowledge of Computer Proficiency | 20 | 60 |
Total | Duration: 2 hours | 100 | 300 |
The notice does not set separate time limits for each part, so you can move between parts freely within the 2 hours. In the DRQ 2026 cycle, the Superintendent Tier I was held on 31 January 2026 in the afternoon session (as reported).
Tier II Exam Pattern
Tier II is set at graduation level. It has an objective part answered on an OMR sheet and a descriptive part written by hand, both inside one 3-hour paper.
Part | Subject | Objective (Questions / Marks) | Descriptive (Questions / Marks) |
|---|---|---|---|
I | Current Affairs | 10 / 30 | 4 / 20 |
II | Indian History and Culture | 4 / 12 | 4 / 20 |
III | Indian Economy | 4 / 12 | 4 / 20 |
IV | Indian Geography | 4 / 12 | 4 / 20 |
V | Science and Technology | 4 / 12 | 4 / 20 |
VI | Concepts, Issues and Dynamics of Public Administration and Management | 8 / 24 | 4 / 20 |
VII | Constitution of India, Polity, Governance | 8 / 24 | 4 / 20 |
VIII | English Language and Comprehension | 8 / 24 | 2 / 10 |
Total | Duration: 3 hours | 50 / 150 | 30 / 150 |
How to Write Descriptive Answers
The notice does not prescribe a word limit, so let the marks guide length. A 5-mark answer is usually well served by 80 to 120 words written as short paragraphs or numbered points. A longer answer rarely earns more and steals time from the next question.
Answer part | What to write | Example (polity) |
|---|---|---|
Opening line | Define the term or state the core fact | Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51A of the Constitution. |
Body | Three or four points with facts, articles, dates or examples | Added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976; now 11 duties; not enforceable by courts. |
Closing line | One line on significance or current relevance | They remind citizens that rights come with responsibilities. |
Tier II carries 300 marks in all. There is no provision for re-evaluation. In the DRQ 2026 cycle, the Superintendent Tier II was held on 19 April 2026 from 9:30 am to 12:30 pm (as reported).
Marking Scheme and Negative Marking
Response | Objective questions (Tier I and Tier II) |
|---|---|
Correct answer | +3 marks |
Wrong answer | -1 mark |
Unanswered | 0 |
More than one option marked | Treated as wrong (-1) |
Descriptive answers are marked by examiners against the marks shown for each question; the notice states no negative marking for them. Blank OMR responses are not penalised, so leaving a question you cannot judge costs nothing.
What the Pattern Means for You
Marks per Question and Time per Question
Stage and section | Marks per question | Average time available |
|---|---|---|
Tier I, any part | 3 | About 72 seconds |
Tier II, objective | 3 | Aim for 30 to 40 minutes for all 50 |
Tier II, descriptive (general studies) | 5 | About 4 to 5 minutes each if you keep 140 minutes for writing |
Tier II, descriptive (English) | 5 | About 5 minutes each |
The Cost of a Wrong Guess
Blind guessing does not pay: With four options, a random guess has a one-in-four chance. Over four such guesses you expect one right (+3) and three wrong (-3), which nets zero for the risk taken.
Eliminate first: If you can rule out two options, the odds become one in two, and the expected gain turns positive (+1 per question on average). Guess only at that point.
Watch accuracy, not attempts: 80 correct answers with 10 wrong scores 230. 90 attempts with 20 wrong leaves 70 correct and only 190.
Where Effort Pays
Tier I: Four parts carry 60 marks each. Computer proficiency is as heavy as reasoning, and it is often the quickest part to improve.
Tier II: The descriptive half is worth 150 marks from just 30 questions. Polity, public administration and current affairs together carry 138 of the 300 Tier II marks.
30% floor: You must score at least 30% of the maximum marks in each tier, which is 90 of 300 in Tier I and 90 of 300 in Tier II. Realistic cut-offs sit far above this floor.
Skill Test Pattern
Point | Details |
|---|---|
Who takes it | Candidates shortlisted from Tier II in a 1:5 ratio |
Required speed | 35 wpm in English or 30 wpm in Hindi on computer |
Key depressions | 10,500 KDPH (English) or 9,000 KDPH (Hindi), based on 5 key depressions per word |
Nature | Qualifying only; does not add marks |
The notice does not give the passage length or test duration, which appear in the skill test admit card instructions. In the 2024-25 cycle, the Superintendent typing test was held in Delhi from 24 to 26 September 2025 (as reported).
Shortlisting, Qualifying Marks and Final Merit
Tier I to Tier II: Candidates are called in a ratio of 1:10 against vacancies, by Tier I performance.
Tier II to skill test: Candidates are called in a ratio of 1:5, by Tier II performance.
Category relaxation: Cut-offs for OBC and EWS can be up to 5% below the UR cut-off, and for SC, ST and PwBD up to 10% below.
Tie-breaking: The older candidate ranks higher; if still tied, names are ordered alphabetically.
The DRQ 2026 notice does not give a separate formula for combining tiers for this post. In the 2024-25 cycle, a CBSE public notice said the Superintendent Tier I was a screening stage whose marks would not count for selection. Plan on Tier II marks deciding your rank, and check the final result notice of your cycle.
Worked Example
Suppose 27 posts are notified. At 1:10, about 270 candidates are called for Tier II. At 1:5 after Tier II, about 135 are called for the typing test. Those who pass the typing test are ranked on Tier II performance within their category, and the top candidates against each category's vacancies move to document verification. Actual numbers vary with category-wise vacancies and ties.
Old Pattern vs New Pattern
Feature | 2024-25 cycle (Advt. 31 December 2024) | DRQ 2026 cycle (Advt. 2 December 2025) |
|---|---|---|
Tier I questions and marks | 150 questions, 450 marks | 100 questions, 300 marks |
Tier I duration | 3 hours | 2 hours |
Tier I parts | Five parts of 30 questions; Hindi and English combined | Six parts; Hindi and English separate (10 each) |
Tier II | 50 objective plus 30 descriptive, 300 marks, 3 hours | Unchanged |
Skill test | Typing, qualifying | Unchanged |
Older pages and practice books may still show the 150-question Tier I, so follow the official notification and practise in the 100-question format.
Exam-Day Rules and OMR Instructions
The objective parts of both tiers are answered on OMR sheets, so small handling mistakes can cost real marks. The notice also lists items that are not allowed in the hall.
Carry the essentials: A printed admit card, one passport-size photograph matching the one uploaded with your application and an original, valid photo ID.
Leave devices outside: Calculators, mobile phones and other electronic devices are not allowed, and using one counts as unfair means.
Mark one option only: A question with two marked options is treated as wrong and attracts the 1-mark deduction.
Keep the rows aligned: If you skip a question, skip the matching row on the OMR sheet too. A shifted row can turn correct answers into wrong ones.
Write legibly in Tier II: There is no re-evaluation of Tier II, so clear handwriting and labelled answers protect the marks you earn.
Candidates using a scribe must follow the scribe rules and undertaking format given in the notification. Exam city and admit card notices appear on the CBSE recruitment page a few days before each tier.
Time Management and Exam-Day Strategy
Tier I
First pass in 75 minutes: Answer every question you can solve quickly across all six parts, starting with the language and computer parts.
Second pass in 35 minutes: Return to arithmetic and reasoning questions you marked, and use elimination before guessing.
Last 10 minutes for the OMR: Check bubbling and the question number alignment; a shifted row can cost many marks.
Tier II
Finish the objective part first: Keep it to 30 to 40 minutes so at least 140 minutes remain for writing.
Answer every descriptive question: A short, correct answer scores some marks; a blank scores none.
Use a fixed structure: One-line introduction, three or four points with facts, articles or examples, and a one-line conclusion.
Official notification (DRQ 2026): https://www.cbse.gov.in/cbsenew/documents/Detailed_Advertisement_Direct_Recruitment_02122025.pdf
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