RPF SI Exam Pattern: CBT Marks, Negative Marking and Stages
The RPF SI exam pattern is simple on paper: one 90-minute computer-based test (CBT), followed by physical tests and document verification. The pattern below follows CEN RPF 01/2024, the latest completed Sub-Inspector cycle. No newer official RPF SI notification could be confirmed as of October 2026, so treat any change in a future notification as the final word.
This page explains the marks, the negative marking, the qualifying rules and what the numbers mean for your strategy, so you can plan your time in the paper rather than only memorise the table.
Table of Contents
RPF SI exam pattern at a glance
CBT pattern: section-wise
Marking scheme and negative marking
Qualifying marks and normalisation
What the pattern means for you
PET and PMT stage
Document verification and final merit
Time management and exam-day strategy
RPF SI exam pattern at a glance
Stage | Format | Marks | Duration | Counted in final merit |
|---|---|---|---|---|
Stage 1: CBT | Online, objective, 120 questions | 120 | 90 minutes | Yes |
Stage 2: PET and PMT | Physical race, jumps and measurements | Qualifying | As scheduled | No, qualifying only |
Stage 3: Document verification | Originals checked | No marks | As scheduled | Eligibility check |
The final merit is reported to be based on CBT marks. This is how the 2024 cycle worked and it is also how earlier RPF cycles were described, but check the notification for your cycle.
CBT pattern: section-wise
Test | Questions | Marks | Time |
|---|---|---|---|
General Awareness | 50 | 50 | 90 minutes in total, no sectional timing reported |
Arithmetic | 35 | 35 | Same paper |
General Intelligence and Reasoning | 35 | 35 | Same paper |
Total | 120 | 120 | 90 minutes |
The paper is objective, with one mark per question. Candidates can usually choose the language of the paper from the options offered in the notification, which included Hindi, English and several regional languages. The three sections form one combined paper, and you can move between them within the 90 minutes unless the exam interface says otherwise. Read the instructions on the screen at the start of your slot.
Marking scheme and negative marking
Correct answer: plus 1 mark.
Wrong answer: minus one-third (0.33) of a mark.
Unattempted question: no mark, no deduction.
A single wrong answer cancels one-third of a correct one, so three wrong answers cost you the equivalent of one right answer. A worked example makes this concrete. If you attempt 100 questions and get 85 right and 15 wrong, your raw score is 85 minus 5, which is 80 out of 120. If you had left those 15 blank, you would have scored 85. Guessing only pays when you can remove at least one option with confidence.
Qualifying marks and normalisation
Category | Minimum qualifying marks (CBT) |
|---|---|
UR, EWS and OBC | 35 percent (42 of 120) |
SC and ST | 30 percent (36 of 120) |
Qualifying marks only make you eligible. Shortlisting for the physical stage depends on the cut-off, which is much higher in practice. The 2024 cycle shortlisted candidates in a ratio reported as about ten times the vacancies. When the CBT runs across several days and shifts, the RRBs normalise marks to account for differences in paper difficulty, and the published cut-off is on a scale of 100. Your raw score and your normalised score can therefore differ.
The normalised cut-off for the 2024 PET/PMT shortlist is on the RPF SI cut-off page. A relaxation of marks for PwBD candidates may apply in some conditions, as stated in the notification.
What the pattern means for you
General Awareness decides the gap: It is 50 of 120 marks, and most questions are direct. Score 40 or more here and the rest of the paper becomes easier.
Maths and reasoning need speed: With 70 questions in the two sections, a few minutes saved on each of them can turn into extra attempts elsewhere.
Blind guessing hurts: With one-third negative marking, a random guess has a negative expected value when all four options are equally likely.
Sectional cut-offs are not reported: There is no sectional cut-off mentioned for the 2024 CBT, but a weak section still pulls down your total, so do not skip one section completely.
Older pages and videos may still show the Constable pattern or a pre-2024 version, so follow the official notification.
PET and PMT stage
Candidates shortlisted from the CBT move to the Physical Efficiency Test and the Physical Measurement Test. Both are qualifying and do not add marks. Ex-servicemen are reported to be exempt from PET but must take PMT. The standards reported for the SI (Executive) post are below.
Test | Male | Female |
|---|---|---|
Race | 1600 m in 6 minutes 30 seconds | 800 m in 4 minutes |
Long jump | 12 feet | 9 feet |
High jump | 3 feet 9 inches | 3 feet |
PMT category | Male height | Female height | Male chest (unexpanded / expanded) |
|---|---|---|---|
UR, EWS, OBC | 165 cm | 157 cm | 80 cm / 85 cm |
SC, ST | 160 cm | 152 cm | 76.2 cm / 81.2 cm |
Garhwalis, Gorkhas, Marathas, Dogras, Kumaonese and other notified groups | 163 cm | 155 cm | 80 cm / 85 cm |
The number of attempts allowed in each physical event and the reporting rules are specified in the PET/PMT notice. Read that notice on the official RRB Secunderabad page for CEN RPF 01/2024 before you plan your training.
Document verification and final merit
Candidates who clear the physical stage are called for document verification with original certificates. Documents are checked for age, qualification, category and any other claim made in the application. Final selection is made in order of CBT merit, subject to medical fitness and other conditions in the notification. After selection, appointees undergo training as per service rules.
Time management and exam-day strategy
A suggested split for a 90-minute paper is below. Adjust it after your first few mock tests.
Section | Target time | Approach |
|---|---|---|
General Awareness | 15 to 18 minutes | Answer what you know at once; skip doubtful ones |
Reasoning | 30 minutes | Do quick types first, such as series and coding-decoding |
Arithmetic | 35 minutes | Start with percentages and profit and loss; leave long calculations for last |
Review | 5 to 8 minutes | Revisit marked questions where you can eliminate options |
Do two passes: Attempt the easy questions first, then return to the time-consuming ones.
Track accuracy, not only attempts: Aim for accuracy above 85 percent in mocks before you push attempts higher.
Reach the centre early: Carry the admit card and the ID proof named in it.
Frequently Asked Questions
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