SSC Havaldar Exam Pattern 2025: CBE and PET/PST

The SSC Havaldar exam pattern has two stages: a computer based examination (CBE) with two sessions, followed by a Physical Efficiency Test and a Physical Standard Test (PET/PST). The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) set this pattern in its notice for the Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff and Havaldar (CBIC and CBN) Examination, 2025.

The pattern shapes how you should use your time. Session-I is a qualifying hurdle with no negative marking, while Session-II decides your rank and carries a penalty for wrong answers. This page lays out the marks, timing and qualifying rules, then shows what they mean for your strategy.

Table of Contents

• Pattern at a Glance

• Computer Based Examination

• Marking Scheme and Negative Marking

• What the Pattern Means for You

• Physical Efficiency and Standard Tests

• How Final Selection Works

• Time Management in the Exam

Pattern at a Glance

Computer Based Examination

Both sessions are held on the same day and both are mandatory. Session-II starts right after Session-I ends, and each session closes automatically after 45 minutes. Candidates who are eligible for a scribe get 60 minutes per session.

Questions are objective, multiple choice. Session-I and the General Awareness part of Session-II are set in English, Hindi and 13 regional languages. The English part is, naturally, in English. Because the exam runs in multiple shifts, SSC normalises marks using a published formula, and the normalised scores are used for cut-offs and merit.

Marking Scheme and Negative Marking

Every question in the notice's pattern is worth 3 marks: 60 marks for 20 questions in Session-I, and 75 marks for 25 questions in Session-II.

Unanswered questions carry no penalty. Only wrong answers in Session-II cost marks.

Qualifying marks

You must reach the minimum marks in each session separately. Session-II is evaluated only if you qualify in Session-I.

For UR candidates, 30% means 36 of 120 marks in Session-I and 45 of 150 in Session-II.

What the Pattern Means for You

• Attempt every Session-I question you can solve: There is no penalty, so a sensible guess on a question you have narrowed down costs nothing. Session-I only needs to be cleared, so protect accuracy and time for Session-II.

• Treat Session-II as the real contest: General Awareness and English together carry 150 marks and decide your rank, and 25 questions each are available in 45 minutes.

• Price your guesses: A correct answer gains 3 marks and a wrong one loses 1. Guess only when you can remove at least two options.

• Do not skip the minimum: Falling short in Session-I means Session-II is never checked, whatever your General Awareness score.

Older pages may still show previous patterns, so follow the official notice.

Physical Efficiency and Standard Tests

Candidates shortlisted for Havaldar must qualify the PET and PST, which are conducted by CBIC or CBN at centres they select. Candidates can be called to any centre in the country. The tests carry no marks, but failing them removes you from the Havaldar list.

Physical Efficiency Test

Physical Standard Test

Height can be relaxed by 5 cm for men and 2.5 cm for women who are Garhwalis, Assamese, Gorkhas or members of Scheduled Tribes. Women in these groups also get a weight relaxation of 2 kg. Some PwBD candidates may be exempted from walking if they produce a medical certificate. A woman found to be pregnant at 12 weeks or more is declared temporarily unfit and can be re-examined after confinement.

How Final Selection Works

1. CBE shortlisting: Candidates are shortlisted for PET/PST in the ratio of 1:7 (vacancies to candidates) on normalised Session-II marks, with CCA-wise and category-wise cut-offs.

2. PET/PST: Failing it means you are not considered for Havaldar, though your candidature can remain valid for the MTS post.

3. Final merit: Final allocation depends on Session-II marks, your Cadre Controlling Authority (CCA) preferences and PET/PST qualification.

If candidates tie on Session-II marks, the tie is resolved in this order: marks in General Awareness, total normalised marks in Session-I, older age, and alphabetical order of names.

Here is a worked example of a raw Session-II score. If you answer 20 General Awareness questions correctly with 4 wrong, you get 60 minus 4, which is 56. If you answer 18 English questions correctly with 3 wrong, you get 54 minus 3, which is 51. Your raw Session-II score is 107 out of 150 before normalisation. This example is illustrative and not an official score.

Time Management in the Exam

• Session-I: Aim for about 20 minutes per part, solve the easiest questions first and mark the rest for review.

• Session-II: Start with the part you are stronger in. Spend roughly 20 minutes on General Awareness, where you either know the answer or you do not, and use the rest for English comprehension and grammar.

• Last five minutes: Review marked questions only where you can improve the odds of a correct answer.