UP Police Constable Exam Pattern 2026: Marks and Stages

The UP Police Constable exam pattern decides how you are tested at every stage of the recruitment run by the Uttar Pradesh Police Recruitment and Promotion Board (UPPRPB). The current cycle, Constable Civil Police and Equivalent Posts Direct Recruitment 2025, covers 32,679 posts and moves through an offline written test, document verification with a physical standard test (PST), a physical efficiency test (PET) and a medical examination.

The biggest change this cycle is in the marking scheme. Negative marking has been removed, so the way you attempt the paper is different from the 2024 exam. This page explains each stage, the marking rules, the minimum marks you need, how the final merit list is prepared and how to plan your time on exam day.

Table of Contents

UP Police Constable Exam Pattern at a Glance

Only the written test carries marks that count in the final merit list. Every later stage is qualifying, which means you must clear it, but your performance there does not change your rank.

Where the 2025 recruitment stands

PET dates have been revised for some centres. Track the notices section on the official UPPRPB website and your registered email for the schedule that applies to you.

UP Police Constable Written Exam Pattern

The written test is a single objective paper of 150 questions for 300 marks, to be completed in 2 hours. Each question has four options and you mark one answer on an OMR sheet. The paper tests four subjects: General Knowledge, General Hindi, Numerical and Mental Ability, and Mental Aptitude, IQ and Reasoning Ability.

The notification fixes the four subjects and the totals of 150 questions and 300 marks. The subject-wise split above reflects previous papers, so treat it as indicative and expect roughly equal weight for all four subjects.

Key features of the written paper

• Offline OMR mode: The OMR sheet has three copies. The original goes to the evaluating agency, the second to the Board and the third to you. Walking out with the original copy cancels your candidature.

• Multiple shifts: Depending on the number of candidates, the Board can hold the exam over several dates and shifts with different question papers. In 2026 it ran over three days in two shifts each.

• Language: Previous papers have generally been set in Hindi and English, with the General Hindi section in Hindi only. Check the instructions on your admit card and question booklet.

• Answer key and objections: The Board publishes a provisional answer key after the exam and invites objections online before finalising results.

Marking Scheme, Minimum Marks and Normalisation

Marking scheme and negative marking

The Uttar Pradesh cabinet approved amendments to the constable and jail warder service rules that abolished negative marking, and the 2025 notification provides no deduction for wrong answers. The 2024 exam (Direct Recruitment 2023) deducted 0.5 marks per wrong answer, and many pages still show that rule or a 0.25 deduction. Follow the current notification.

Minimum qualifying marks

Candidates who score below the following minimum in the written test are not eligible for recruitment, whatever the vacancy position.

These are floors, not targets. The marks actually needed to reach document verification are decided by merit against vacancies, and in 2026 they were far higher. The unreserved shortlisting cut-off was 258.04 out of 300.

Normalisation across shifts

Because different shifts get different papers, the Board converts raw scores into normalised scores using the procedure it published in its notice dated 18 December 2023. Cut-offs and merit are based on these normalised scores, which is why published cut-offs carry several decimal places. A tougher shift does not automatically put you at a disadvantage.

What happens if a question is dropped

If the Board finds a question or its options faulty after objections, it cancels that question and redistributes marks using the formula set by the Allahabad High Court:

$\text{Marks} = \dfrac{\text{Correct answers} \times 300}{\text{Number of valid questions}}$

For example, if three questions are dropped, 147 remain valid. A candidate with 120 correct answers would get 120 × 300 ÷ 147, or about 244.90 marks.

What the Exam Pattern Means for You

• Attempt every question: A blank and a wrong answer both score zero, so leaving a question empty can never help. A sensible guess between two remaining options gives you a 50% chance of 2 marks at no cost.

• Accuracy still decides selection: The 2026 unreserved cut-off of 258.04 works out to roughly 129 correct answers out of 150. For OBC (251.63) it is about 126, for SC (239.34) about 120 and for ST (220.11) about 110. Normalisation shifts these slightly, but the message is clear: you need very few mistakes.

• No subject-wise minimum: The notification sets an overall minimum, not a per-subject one. A strong Hindi or GK score can make up for a weaker Numerical section, but a very weak section makes the overall target hard to reach.

• Play to the quick sections: General Hindi and General Knowledge questions take seconds if you know them. Numerical Ability takes the longest, so it is where speed practice pays off most.

Document Verification and Physical Standard Test

Candidates declared successful in the written test are called for scrutiny of records and the PST, both qualifying. The Board decides how many candidates to call on merit, keeping the total vacancies in view. At scrutiny, your original documents are matched against your application for eligibility, age relaxation, category claims (vertical and horizontal) and any preferential qualification.

• Chest expansion: A minimum expansion of 5 cm is compulsory for men.

• Only this recruitment's measurement counts: Height or chest measured in earlier recruitments, or by any government or private institution, is not accepted.

• Same-day objection: If you disagree with your measurement, you can object on the spot that day. You are re-measured in front of a nodal officer of Additional Superintendent of Police rank, and failing again is final with no further appeal.

Physical Efficiency Test

Candidates who clear scrutiny and PST take the PET, which is a qualifying run. Failing to finish within the time limit ends your candidature at that stage.

• No extra chances: No candidate is allowed a PET after the last notified date, including women who are pregnant, candidates in judicial custody or anyone absent for any other reason.

• Banned substances: Taking steroids, stimulants or intoxicants during the PET is treated as misconduct, and the Board can cancel candidature and take legal action.

• Train early: The gap between the written result and the PET is a few weeks, so start running while you prepare for the written test.

Final Merit List and Medical Examination

From the candidates who pass the PET, the Board prepares a category-wise selection list on the basis of written examination marks, following the reservation policy and the number of vacancies. This list goes to the department for medical examination and character verification. The Board does not prepare a waiting list.

Tie-break rules

If two or more candidates have the same marks, rank is decided in this order:

1. Preferential qualification: An "O" level computer certificate from DOEACC/NIELIT, at least two years of service in the Territorial Army, or an NCC "B" certificate. Only one preferential qualification is counted, and it carries no marks.

2. Age: The older candidate ranks higher.

3. Name: If still tied, the English alphabetical order of the name in the High School certificate decides.

Example: two OBC candidates both have a normalised score of 252.10. If only one holds an NCC "B" certificate, that candidate ranks higher even if the other is older.

Medical examination

A medical board checks height, chest and weight again, and tests for conditions such as knock knees, bow legs, flat feet, varicose veins, defects of distant and near vision, colour blindness (full or partial), hearing (including Rinne, Weber and vertigo tests) and speech defects. You must be mentally and physically fit for police duty to be finally appointed.

Time Management and Exam-Day Strategy

You get 120 minutes for 150 questions, or 48 seconds per question on average. A fixed plan stops one difficult section from eating into the rest.

• Bubble in blocks: Transfer answers to the OMR sheet after every 10 to 15 questions instead of leaving it all for the end.

• Keep the last minutes for guesses: With no negative marking, use the final review to make your best guess on every unanswered question.

• Rehearse the timing: Take full-length mocks in a 2-hour sitting with an OMR-style answer sheet so the plan feels natural on exam day.

Key Changes to Know

• Negative marking removed: The 2024 exam deducted 0.5 marks per wrong answer; the 2025 recruitment has no deduction.

• Category-wise minimum marks: 30% for unreserved, 25% for EWS and OBC, and 20% for SC and ST.

• One-time age relaxation: The state government allowed three extra years in the upper age limit for all categories in this recruitment.

• Higher cut-offs: With no penalty for guessing, the 2026 cut-offs rose sharply over 2024, so set your mock targets accordingly.

Older pages may still show the 2024 marking scheme or a 150-minute paper, so follow the official notification and notices on the UPPRPB website.