MP Police Constable Exam Pattern 2026: CBT and PET

The MP Police Constable exam pattern has two scoring stages: a computer-based written test conducted by the Madhya Pradesh Employees Selection Board (MPESB) and a Physical Efficiency Test (PET) conducted by the police department. The 2026 rulebook for 7,500 Constable (General Duty) posts keeps the written test at 100 questions and 100 marks in two hours, with no negative marking.

Both stages feed the final merit, so time use matters in each. This page covers the written test structure, the marking scheme, the physical measurement and PET, how merit is built, and what the pattern means for how you prepare.

Table of Contents

• Exam pattern at a glance

• Written test pattern

• Marking scheme

• What the pattern means for you

• Physical measurement and PET

• Final merit

• Time management and exam-day strategy

MP Police Constable exam pattern at a glance

Written test pattern

• Mode: Online computer-based test held in shifts. The 2026 schedule lists a morning shift from 10:00 to 12:00 and an afternoon shift from 15:00 to 17:00, with reporting about an hour earlier.

• Language: The rulebook describes the questions as Hindi-language multiple-choice questions. Check your admit card for the language options in your shift.

• No sectional timing: The two hours apply to the whole paper, so you can move between sections.

Marking scheme and negative marking

Each correct answer earns one mark. There is no negative marking, so wrong and unanswered questions both score zero. The rulebook sets no fixed qualifying mark for the written test. Instead, MPESB fixes a cut-off percentile in each vertical category and calls about seven times the number of vacancies to the physical stage.

What the pattern means for you

• One mark per question everywhere: A reasoning question is worth the same as a GK question, so do not lose time on any single question.

• No cost to a guess: With no negative marking, answer every question before time runs out.

• 1.2 minutes per question: Two hours for 100 questions leaves little slack. Aim to finish reasoning and arithmetic faster so GK gets a second look.

• Shortlisting is relative: Because the cut-off is a percentile, your rank among candidates matters more than a fixed score.

Physical measurement and PET

Physical measurement

Chest expansion of at least 5 cm is required, and the rulebook allows no relaxation in physical measurement.

Physical Efficiency Test

The PET carries 100 marks and candidates need at least 30% to be considered for merit. The event-wise split above is as reported for this cycle; the official scoring bands are in Schedule 1 of the rulebook, so check it before you set training targets. Relaxed standards apply to eligible Home Guard and ex-servicemen candidates.

Final merit

Written test marks and PET marks are added to form the merit list, along with any bonus marks allowed under the rulebook (for example, for NCC C certificate holders or eligible Home Guards). Merit is prepared category-wise, and ties are broken first by proportionate marks and then by age.

A worked example: a candidate who scores 78 in the written test and 62 in the PET has 140 out of 200 before any bonus. Another candidate with 84 in the written test but 50 in the PET has 134, so the first candidate ranks higher despite the lower written score.

Time management and exam-day strategy

1. First 35 minutes: Reasoning and mental aptitude questions you can solve quickly.

2. Next 35 minutes: Arithmetic and science, skipping any calculation that runs past two minutes.

3. Next 35 minutes: General knowledge and current affairs.

4. Last 15 minutes: Return to skipped questions and mark an answer for every remaining one.

Older pages may still show a different section split or marks, so follow the official rulebook on the MPESB website.