SSC MTS Exam Pattern 2026: Sessions, Marks and Timing
The SSC MTS exam pattern 2026 is simple to read but easy to misunderstand. The Computer Based Examination (CBE) has 90 questions for 270 marks, split into two sessions of 45 minutes each. One session has no negative marking and only needs to be qualified. The other has a one-mark penalty for every wrong answer and alone decides your rank.
Many older guides still describe a quarter-mark penalty or a descriptive paper, neither of which applies to the current pattern. This guide explains the latest SSC MTS exam pattern session by session, the marking scheme with worked examples, the Havaldar physical tests, and a time plan you can use on exam day.
SSC MTS Exam Pattern 2026 at a Glance
Particular | Details |
|---|---|
Conducting body | Staff Selection Commission (SSC) |
Posts | Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff and Havaldar (CBIC and CBN) |
Exam mode | Online, Computer Based Examination (CBE) |
Sessions | Two, both compulsory: Session I and Session II |
Total questions and marks | 90 questions, 270 marks (3 marks per question) |
Duration | 45 minutes per session (60 minutes per session for candidates eligible for a scribe) |
Negative marking | None in Session I; 1 mark per wrong answer in Session II |
Merit basis | Session II scores only (after qualifying Session I) |
Extra stage for Havaldar | PET and PST (qualifying) |
Exam languages | Hindi, English and 13 regional languages |
SSC MTS 2026 Notification Status
SSC's examination calendar for 2026-27 listed 30 June 2026 as the SSC MTS notification date. That date has passed, and as of late September 2026 the notification has not been released. The pattern below is taken from the 2025 notification, which has remained unchanged since SSC adopted the two-session format. Any change announced in the 2026 notice will be updated here.
SSC MTS Selection Process
The selection process depends on the post you are considered for.
Stage | MTS | Havaldar (CBIC and CBN) |
|---|---|---|
Computer Based Examination | Yes | Yes |
Physical Efficiency Test (PET) | No | Yes, qualifying |
Physical Standard Test (PST) | No | Yes, qualifying |
Document Verification | Yes | Yes |
Final merit based on | Session II score, post and State/UT preference, age group | Session II score, qualifying PET/PST, post and State/UT preference |
There is no interview in SSC MTS. Your written performance in Session II, combined with the preferences you fill in the application form, decides your final allocation.
SSC MTS CBE Pattern: Session I and Session II
Session | Subject | Questions | Marks | Duration | Negative marking |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Session I | Numerical and Mathematical Ability | 20 | 60 | 45 minutes (combined) | No |
Session I | Reasoning Ability and Problem Solving | 20 | 60 | No | |
Session I | Total | 40 | 120 | ||
Session II | General Awareness | 25 | 75 | 45 minutes (combined) | 1 mark per wrong answer |
Session II | English Language and Comprehension | 25 | 75 | 1 mark per wrong answer | |
Session II | Total | 50 | 150 |
Key rules from the 2025 notification:
Both sessions are compulsory. Missing either session leads to disqualification.
Each session is timed separately. Time left over in Session I cannot be carried into Session II.
Session I is evaluated first. Session II is evaluated only for candidates who qualify Session I.
Questions are objective. Every question is a multiple-choice question carrying 3 marks.
SSC MTS Marking Scheme and Negative Marking
The marking scheme is the part of the SSC MTS exam pattern that most affects strategy.
Response | Session I | Session II |
|---|---|---|
Correct answer | +3 | +3 |
Wrong answer | 0 | -1 |
Unattempted | 0 | 0 |
Worked example
Suppose a candidate attempts 42 of the 50 questions in Session II and gets 34 right and 8 wrong.
Marks for correct answers: 34 x 3 = 102
Penalty for wrong answers: 8 x 1 = 8
Session II score: 102 - 8 = 94 out of 150
The same eight mistakes would have cost nothing in Session I. That is why Session I rewards attempting every question, while Session II rewards careful selection.
When is guessing worth it in Session II?
Each question has four options. A completely blind guess has a 1 in 4 chance of being right, so on average it earns nothing: one right guess (+3) roughly cancels three wrong ones (-3). If you can confidently eliminate even one option, the odds move in your favour. If you cannot eliminate any option, skip the question.
Why Session I Is Qualifying and Session II Decides Merit
Under the current SSC MTS exam pattern, Session I (Maths and Reasoning) works as a filter. You must clear it, but its marks do not count in the final merit list. Session II (General Awareness and English) is the only session used to rank candidates.
The 2025 notification prescribed the following minimum qualifying marks. The table also shows what these percentages mean for Session I, which is worth 120 marks.
Category | Minimum qualifying marks | Equivalent in Session I (120 marks) |
|---|---|---|
Unreserved (UR) | 30% | 36 marks (12 correct answers) |
OBC and EWS | 25% | 30 marks (10 correct answers) |
All other categories | 20% | 24 marks (8 correct answers) |
These are minimum thresholds, not cut-offs. SSC fixes the actual Session II cut-offs separately for each Chief Commissioner's Area (CCA), category and age group, and these are usually far above the minimum.
Normalisation of scores
The CBE is held in many shifts across several days. To keep scoring fair between easier and harder shifts, SSC uses normalised scores to determine merit. Your raw score and your normalised score can therefore differ slightly.
Havaldar PET and PST Pattern
Candidates considered for Havaldar posts in CBIC and CBN must clear the Physical Efficiency Test and Physical Standard Test after the CBE. Previous notifications specify shortlisting for PET/PST in the ratio of 1:7 (vacancies to candidates), based on Session II performance. These tests are conducted by CBIC and CBN at their centres.
Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
Activity | Male | Female |
|---|---|---|
Walking | 1,600 metres in 15 minutes | 1 kilometre in 20 minutes |
The 2025 notification lists walking as the PET activity. Some older guides still mention a cycling test, which is not part of the current requirement.
Physical Standard Test (PST)
Parameter | Male | Female |
|---|---|---|
Height | 157.5 cm | 152 cm |
Chest | 76 cm unexpanded, with a minimum 5 cm expansion (81 cm expanded) | Not applicable |
Weight | Not applicable | 48 kg |
Height is relaxed by 5 cm for male and 2.5 cm for female candidates who are Garhwalis, Assamese, Gorkhas or members of Scheduled Tribes, and weight is relaxed by 2 kg for women in these groups. Candidates who do not qualify PET/PST are not considered for Havaldar, but they remain in contention for MTS posts on the basis of their CBE merit.
Exam Languages
Exam Component / Choice | Official Language Medium Guidelines |
|---|---|
Medium of Computer Based Examination (CBE) | Offered in 15 Languages in total: • Default Mediums: Hindi & English • 13 Regional Languages: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu |
Language Selection Protocol | Candidate must select their preferred medium of examination during the online application submission process. |
Language Section Exception | The English Language and Comprehension section is administered strictly in English across all candidate language selections. |
Tie-Breaking Rules
When two or more candidates have the same Session II score, SSC applies tie-breaking criteria listed in the notification. In previous cycles, the first criterion was higher marks in General Awareness (Session II), followed by total marks in Session I, and then further criteria such as date of birth. Check the 2026 notice for the exact order.
How the SSC MTS Exam Pattern Has Changed
Older SSC MTS cycles used a different structure: an objective paper with a quarter-mark penalty, followed by a descriptive paper. SSC replaced it with the current two-session CBE from the 2022 examination cycle, and the format has stayed the same since then.
Feature | Older pattern | Current pattern |
|---|---|---|
Written stages | Objective paper plus descriptive paper | One CBE with two sessions |
Negative marking | 0.25 mark per wrong answer | None in Session I; 1 mark in Session II |
Merit basis | Combined performance | Session II only |
Marks per question | 1 | 3 |
If a book or practice set uses 100 questions of 1 mark each with 0.25 negative marking, it follows the old pattern. The questions may still be useful for practice, but do not use them to judge your score.
Time Management Plan for Each Session
A fixed time plan prevents the most common mistake: spending too long on one tough question. Because the SSC MTS exam pattern times each session separately, you need two different rhythms. Session I is a speed round where every question should be attempted. Session II is an accuracy round where skipping a doubtful question is often the smarter choice.
Session | Section | Suggested time | Approach |
|---|---|---|---|
Session I | Reasoning (20 questions) | 15 to 18 minutes | Start here; most questions are quick |
Session I | Maths (20 questions) | 22 to 25 minutes | Solve easy arithmetic first, return to long ones |
Session I | Review | 3 to 5 minutes | Attempt every remaining question (no penalty) |
Session II | General Awareness (25 questions) | 10 to 12 minutes | Answer what you know, skip pure guesses |
Session II | English (25 questions) | 25 to 28 minutes | Do vocabulary and grammar first, then the passage |
Session II | Review | 5 minutes | Recheck marked answers; attempt only eliminable ones |
The SSC MTS exam pattern 2026 rewards two different skills: attempting everything in Session I and choosing carefully in Session II. Remember that Session II alone decides your rank, and that each wrong answer there costs one mark.
Watch ssc.gov.in for the 2026 notification, and meanwhile build your exam-day rhythm with full-length Testkart SSC MTS mock tests.
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